Does 'sleep' in the Bible mean the soul is unconscious after death?
No. John 11:11–14 explicitly glosses the metaphor: Jesus says Lazarus 'has fallen asleep' and then immediately clarifies 'Lazarus has died.' The sleep language describes the outward appearance of the body, not the inner state of the person.
No — and the Gospel of John makes this explicit so clearly that the argument shouldn't be necessary.
When Lazarus dies, Jesus tells his disciples "Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep (kekoimētai, from koimao, G2837), but I go to awaken him" (John 11:11). The disciples think this is good news — if he's resting, he'll recover. So Jesus removes all ambiguity in verse 14: "Lazarus has died." The text defines its own metaphor. "Fallen asleep" means "died." It's a description of the body lying still — the outward appearance, not the inner state.
This is how Paul uses the same word in 1 Thessalonians 4, where he writes about "those who are asleep" three times, then in verse 16 switches to the plain word nekros (νεκρός, G3498) — "the dead in Christ." He uses both words for the same group, one metaphorically and one literally. The sleep language is the image; "the dead" is the reality it pictures.
What the sleep metaphor describes is the body — still, lying down, waiting for waking. Daniel 12:2 says "many of those who sleep in the dust of the ground will awake." The picture is resurrection: the body in the ground is like a sleeper who will rise. That's not a claim about the soul being unconscious. Ecclesiastes 12:7 is specific about where the parts go: "the dust returns to the earth, and the spirit returns to God who gave it." The body sleeps; the spirit returns to God.
Paul's statement in 2 Corinthians 5:8 — "absent from the body, present with the Lord" — pairs departure and arrival as a single event with no gap. The sleep imagery says something about the body. It says nothing about a waiting soul.
What does 'absent from the body, present with the Lord' actually mean?
Paul uses two compound verbs — ekdemeo (to be away from home) and endemeo (to be at home) — to set departure from the body and arrival with the Lord as a single paired transition with no gap between them.
Do the dead know nothing? What does Ecclesiastes 9:5 mean?
Ecclesiastes 9:5 operates within the Preacher's declared frame of 'under the sun' — what can be observed within the natural order. Within that frame the dead have no share in earthly activity, but the same book also says the spirit returns to God (Ecc 12:7).
What did Jesus mean when he said 'Today you will be with me in Paradise'?
Jesus promised the criminal on the cross that he would be in Paradise — the place of God's direct presence — that same day, the day of the crucifixion. The Greek word 'semeron' (today) modifies the promise, not the speech-act, which is consistent with all 75 other uses of 'Truly I say to you' in the Gospels.