Did the Septuagint change what the Bible says about demons?
Yes -- the Greek translators rendered at least three different Hebrew terms as 'demon' (daimonion), and in two cases inserted the word where the Hebrew had no demon term at all, turning empty idols into active spiritual agents.
Yes, and the shift was consequential enough that it shaped New Testament theology.
The clearest example is Psalm 96:5. The Hebrew text reads: "All the gods of the peoples are elilim" -- the word elilim (אֱלִילִים) means "worthless things, nothings." It's related to a word meaning "good for nothing" and sits in the same family as hevel (הֶבֶל, "vapor, vanity"). The Hebrew is dismissive. Pagan gods aren't dangerous -- they're empty.
The Greek translators rendered that same verse as: "All the gods of the nations are daimonia" -- demons. What the Hebrew dismissed as nothing, the Greek declared actively hostile. An "idol of no value" became a malevolent spiritual agent. That's not a translation; it's a theological upgrade.
The pattern held across multiple passages:
- The "goat-demons" (sa'ir, שָׂעִיר) of Isaiah's desolation oracles became daimonia
- The abstract "destruction" (qeteb, קֶטֶב) of Psalm 91:6 became the "noonday demon" -- a personified figure that would become a fixture of later theology
- In Isaiah 65:3, the translators inserted daimonia where the Hebrew had no demon term at all -- the Hebrew describes idolatrous rituals; the Greek names demonic recipients
Why does this matter? Because the New Testament authors read and quoted the Greek Old Testament. When Paul writes to the Corinthians about pagan sacrifice, he draws directly on the Septuagint's rendering of Deuteronomy 32:17:
"What the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons and not to God." -- 1 Corinthians 10:20
Paul isn't inventing the idea that pagan worship involves demons. He received it from the Septuagint -- a translation choice made centuries before his letter. The Greek-speaking Jewish world had a demon-saturated Scripture that its Hebrew-speaking ancestors would not have recognized.
This doesn't mean the translators were wrong. Paul treated the Greek rendering as authoritative, and 1 Corinthians is canonical Scripture. But understanding where the category came from -- that it was shaped by specific translation decisions at identifiable verses -- grounds the theology in a traceable textual history rather than leaving it floating as an unexplained shift.
For the full table of translation shifts and their downstream effects, see the study "Between the Testaments" -- From Silence to Storm.
Does the Bible teach exorcism rituals?
No -- Jesus' exorcisms are distinguished by personal authority (exousia), not by ritual, and the contrast with Second Temple exorcism methods is total: no substances, no formulas, no angelic intermediaries, just sovereign command.
What is the binding of Satan in Revelation 20, and where does the idea come from?
Revelation 20:2 describes an angel binding Satan for a thousand years using the same Greek verb (edesen, 'he bound') that first appears in the deuterocanonical book of Tobit, where an angel binds a single demon -- the same act, escalated from one demon to Satan himself.
When did Satan become a proper name in the Bible?
The shift begins within the Hebrew canon itself -- 1 Chronicles 21:1 drops the definite article from 'the adversary' (ha-satan) for the first time, and by the New Testament, 'Satan' functions as a personal name in all 37 occurrences.
Why does the New Testament have so many more demons than the Old Testament?
Three things happened between the testaments: the Greek translators upgraded 'worthless idols' into 'active demons,' Second Temple writers built a full demonology from the OT's sparse data, and Jesus reframed the whole category under his sovereign authority.